NRNP-6552Advanced Nursing Practice Reproductive Health Final Exam

NRNP-6552Advanced Nursing Practice Reproductive Health Final Exam

NRNP-6552Advanced Nursing Practice Reproductive Health Final Exam with answers.

Order NRNP-6552Advanced Nursing Practice Reproductive Health Final Exam

Question 1

WIC is a federally operated assistance program that also offers dietary counseling and provides vouchers for healthy foods for women living at or below 185% of the poverty level. WIC stands for:

	A.	Women in Care
	B.	Why I Care
	C.	Women, Infants, and Children
	D.	Wonderful Infants and Children

C

Question 2

Ibandronate (Boniva, a medication for osteoporosis, can be administered:

	A.	Orally
	B.	Through an IM injection
	C.	Intravenously
	D.	A and C
	E.	A, B, and C

D

Question 3

Osteoporosis is characterized by:

	A.	Low bone mass
	B.	Deterioration of bone tissue
	C.	Disruption of bone architecture
	D.	All of the above

D

Question 4

The three trisomies for which testing is offered during the second trimester are:

	A.	13. 18, 21
	B.	16, 19, 21
	C.	3, 9, 19
	D.	16, 21, 22

A

Question 5

The following are differential diagnoses for pelvic pain that are of gynecologic origin except:

	A.	Interstitial cystitis
	B.	Mittelschmerz
	C.	Fibroids
	D.	Uterine prolapse

A

Question 6

Progestin-only methods are:

	A.	Likely to improve menstrual symptoms
	B.	Unlikely to ever cause breakthrough bleeding
	C.	A and B
	D.	None of the above

C

Question 7

Contractions that may occur in early pregnancy are called:

	A.	Souffle contractions
	B.	Chadwick contractions
	C.	Uteroplacental contractions
	D.	Braxton-Hicks contractions

D

Question 8

The following are foods to avoid during pregnancy except:

	A.	Soy products
	B.	Unpasteurized milk
	C.	Raw eggs
	D.	Raw alfalfa sprouts

A

Question 9

In a woman who is 20 weeks pregnant, the fundus is typically the same height as:

	A.	The symphysis pubis
	B.	The umbilicus
	C.	The xiphoid process
	D.	None of the above

B

Question 10

With prepackaged lunch meat, hot dogs, pate, and meat spreads there is an increased risk of:

	A.	Toxoplasmosis
	B.	Cytomegalovirus
	C.	Listeriosis
	D.	Coliform bacteria

C

Question 11

The HPV vaccine is contraindicated in:

	A.	Pregnancy
	B.	Breastfeeding
	C.	Males
	D.	A and B
	E.	A, B, and C

A

Question 12

When discussing contraception, LARC stands for:

	A.	Less aggressive reversible contraception
	B.	Long awaited reversible contraception
	C.	Long acting reversible contraception
	D.	None of the above

C

Question 13

Prior to giving semen for an analysis, a male should be abstinent for:

	A.	24 hours prior to the test
	B.	2-5 days prior to the test
	C.	2 weeks prior to the test
	D.	None of the above

B

Question 14

As women age, adipose tissue is redistributed and begins to accumulate in the:

	A.	Hips and thighs
	B.	Breasts
	C.	Waist
	D.	Triceps area

A

Question 15

A generic prenatal vitamin supplement should be prescribed and should include:

	A.	Iron, folic acid, and vitamins
	B.	Mercury, folic acid, and vitamins
	C.	Vitamins only with no other supplements
	D.	Iron and Vitamins with no other supplements

A

Question 16

A complete male evaluation usually includes:

	A.	Two semen analyses, approximately one hour apart
	B.	Two semen analyses, approximately one month apart
	C.	One complete semen analysis
	D.	A fractionated semen analysis

B

Question 17

Physiologic methods of contraception include:

	A.	Abstinence
	B.	Coitus interruptus
	C.	Lactational amenorrhea method
	D.	B and C
	E.	A, B, and C

E

Question 18

All of the following are barrier methods of contraception except

	A.	Male condom
	B.	Female condom
	C.	Diaphragm
	D.	Coitus interruptus

D

Question 19

\A woman who is pregnant should never lift more than ___________ during pregnancy.

	A.	10 pounds
	B.	22 pounds
	C.	28 pounds
	D.	36 pounds

B

Question 20

Paula is 30 weeks pregnant and is in your office today. She is very concerned about her stretch marks. She wants to know if there is anything, she can put on them to make them go away. She has seen a few products on infomercials and wonders if they work. You tell her:

	A.	There are a few products on the market which have proven to be very helpful in making stretch marks disappear
	B.	Despite advertiser’s claims, there is no magic cream to prevent them or make them go away.
	C.	Watching weight gain and eating nutritiously can help decrease their number and severity
	D.	B and C

D

Question 21

Vulvovaginitis in the vulva and vagina can be caused by which of the following organisms?

	A.	Bacteria
	B.	Fungi
	C.	Protozoa
	D.	All of the above

D

Question 22

It is believed that women acquire most of their bone mass

	A.	As infants
	B.	In early adolescence
	C.	In their 20’s
	D.	In their 50’s

B

Question 23

The progestin implant is ____________ inserted into the upper arm.

	A.	A single rod
	B.	Two rods
	C.	6 rods
	D.	None of the above

B

Question 24

Annabelle is a 17-year-old who came in to see you because she is concerned about a “lump” in her right breast. She first noticed it about a month ago and it has not changed in size since then. On exam you note the mass to be about 2 cm in diameter at about 7:00 on her breast. It feels well-delineated and is freely mobile. There is no nipple discharge. You decide to proceed with imaging. The best diagnostic imaging test for this patient would be:

	A.	MRI
	B.	Diagnostic mammography
	C.	Ultrasound
	D.	CT scan

C

Question 25

When assessing fetal heart tones with the doppler, the normal range is:

	A.	60-80 BPM
	B.	100-120 BPM
	C.	120-160 BPM
	D.	160-200 BPM

C

Question 26

The copper IUD is a T shaped device and

	A.	Is made entirely of copper
	B.	Is made of polyethylene with copper wire around the stem and arms
	C.	Releases hormones from the copper to help prevent pregnancy
	D.	Does not really have copper; it is just called the copper IUD

B

Question 27

Your patient, Autumn, is 9 weeks pregnant and is asking you if she should have a flu shot this year as it is flu season. You tell her:

	A.	She should wait until the second trimester and then have the flu shot.
	B.	She can have the flu shot anytime during the pregnancy
	C.	Flu shots are contraindicated during pregnancy
	D.	The flu shot should be administered in the delivery room as soon as the baby is delivered

B

Question 28

The bluish hue that the cervix takes on during pregnancy is called:

	A.	Goodell’s sign
	B.	Baby Blues sign
	C.	Cervical ripening sign
	D.	Chadwick’s sign

D

Question 29

Blood serum pregnancy tests can detect the presence of HCG ________ days after fertilization.

	A.	24 hours
	B.	1-3 days
	C.	3-5 days
	D.	8-10 days

D

Question 30

How long is the vaginal ring left in place?

	A.	1 week
	B.	2 week
	C.	3 week
	D.	3 month

C

Question 31

The gold standard for assessing uterine bleeding and diagnosing endometrial cancer is:

	A.	Endometrial biopsy
	B.	Transvaginal ultrasound
	C.	Dilation and curettage
	D.	CA-125 levels

A

Question 32

The standard treatment for patients with vulvar cancer regardless of the stage of the disease is:

	A.	Laser treatment
	B.	Cryosurgery
	C.	Surgical resection
	D.	Topical medication

C

Question 33

A potentially toxic environmental substance is lead. In pregnancy, lead is a neurotoxin and can cause learning deficits and developmental delays. Lead is found in all of the following except:

	A.	Fish
	B.	Older homes with lead paint
	C.	Certain types of pottery
	D.	Some stained glass

A

Question 34

Fetal heart tones can typically be initially heard with a handheld doppler by:

	A.	6-8 weeks of pregnancy
	B.	10-12 weeks of pregnancy
	C.	14-16 weeks of pregnancy
	D.	20-24 weeks of pregnancy

B

Question 35

Your patient is pregnant and has three cats. You educate her that she should have someone else clean the litter box as there is an infection that can spread through cat feces that can be harmful to the unborn baby. The infection is called:

	A.	E. Coli
	B.	Toxoplasmosis
	C.	Cat-scratch fever
	D.	Tetanus

B

Question 36

The following are risk factors associated with acquiring HPV except:

	A.	Nulliparity
	B.	Early age at first intercourse
	C.	Having multiple sexual partners
	D.	Smoking

A

Question 37

The following gonadotropins are responsible for regulating gynecologic organ activities.

	A.	Testosterone and androgen
	B.	FSH and progesterone
	C.	FSH and LH
	D.	LH and prolactin

C

Question 38

If a pregnant woman has traveled to areas where tuberculosis is common and is at risk, she should:

	A.	Take preventive medication
	B.	Have a tuberculin skin test
	C.	Terminate the pregnancy
	D.	Be aware that the baby may be born with an aortic valve disorder

B

Question 39

Emergency contraception

	A.	Can be used as an ongoing method of contraception
	B.	Provides STI protection
	C.	Is the only method that can be used after intercourse
	D.	Is available by prescription only

C

Question 40

During the second trimester, a test that is offered is the alpha-fetoprotein test. This test indicates:

	A.	If the woman will go to full term
	B.	If the heart has any defects
	C.	Whether the fetal neural tube has properly fused
	D.	If the fetus is living

B

Question 41

To reduce the discomfort of hot flashes with menopause, recommendation include:

	A.	Wearing breathable fabrics
	B.	Wearing silk and polyester
	C.	Avoiding a fan as it makes the hot flashes worse
	D.	None of the above

A

Question 42

During pregnancy, blood volume:

	A.	Remains the same as pre-pregnant amounts
	B.	Increases by 10%
	C.	Increases by 30-50%
	D.	Decreases by 20%

C

Question 43

Laboratory testing that might be indicated to rule out vaginal discharge include:

	A.	STI testing
	B.	Wet Mount
	C.	Endocervical curettage
	D.	A and B
	E.	A, B, and C

B

Question 44

The number one cause of mortality for both women and men in the United States is:

	A.	Diabetes Mellitus
	B.	Cardiovascular disease
	C.	Bone cancer
	D.	Dementia

B

Question 45

Ovarian reserve testing assesses a woman’s reproductive potential by:

	A.	Measuring the quality of her remaining oocytes
	B.	Measuring the quantity of her remaining oocytes
	C.	Assessing the color and motility of her remaining oocytes
	D.	A and B
	E.	A, B, and C

E

Question 46

The greatest risk factor for ovarian cancer is:

	A.	Smoking
	B.	Family history of ovarian cancer in a first-degree relative
	C.	Taking birth control
	D.	None of the above

B

Question 47

The most frequent causal finding(s) on laparoscopy for chronic pelvic pain is/are:

	A.	Endometriosis
	B.	Adhesions
	C.	Absence of pathologic condition
	D.	A and B
	E.	A, B, and C

D

Question 48

Urogenital changes that can occur with menopause include:

	A.	Vaginal dryness
	B.	Dyspareunia
	C.	Urinary incontinence
	D.	A and C
	E.	A, B, and C

E

Question 49

Women who have a history of immediate hypersensitivity to __________ should not receive the 4-valent or 9-valent HPV series.

	A.	Milk products
	B.	Eggs
	C.	Cats
	D.	Yeast

D

Question 50

All of the following are disadvantages of Combined Oral Contraceptives except:

	A.	The need for daily pill taking
	B.	The ongoing cost of the method for some individuals
	C.	Side effects for some women
	D.	Reduction in the risk of some types of cancer

D

Question 51

The following is a type of permanent contraception:

	A.	Hysteroscopy
	B.	Vasectomy
	C.	DMPA injections
	D.	Emergency contraception

B

Question 52

When a woman is lying down, it is best to lie _____________ to avoid hypotension and potential syncope.

	A.	In a supine position
	B.	On her left side
	C.	On her right side
	D.	Face down

A

Question 53

Transvaginal ultrasound can provide information about pregnancy viability _______ weeks after the LMP.

	A.	1-2
	B.	4
	C.	6
	D.	12

C

Question 54

What factors can cause premature menopause?

	A.	Smoking
	B.	Autoimmune disorders
	C.	A women’s mother had early menopause
	D.	All of the above

D

Question 55

The following are warning signs of pregnancy except:

	A.	Bleeding more than light spotting
	B.	Severe abdominal pain
	C.	Extreme nausea and vomiting
	D.	Braxton-Hicks contractions

D

Question 56

When a woman is pregnant and calculating the last menstrual period (LMP), it should be counted from:

	A.	The first day of the last period
	B.	The last day of the last period
	C.	The middle of the last period
	D.	None of the above

A

Question 57

To reduce risk of illness during pregnancy, fish and shellfish should be:

	A.	Served raw
	B.	Cooked thoroughly
	C.	Served at every meal
	D.	Encouraged as often as possible

B

Question 58

The vaginal ring (Nuva ring) is:

	A.	Replaced on a weekly basis
	B.	Left in place for 21 days and then removed for a week
	C.	Replaced on a monthly basis
	D.	Placed in the vagina at least 2 hours prior to intercourse and removed at least 6 hours after intercourse

B

Question 59

All of the following are risk factors for fetal genetic or development abnormalities in maternal, paternal, and family history except:

	A.	Maternal age equal or greater than 30 years
	B.	Mother and father related by blood
	C.	Maternal exposure to toxins
	D.	Congenital blindness or deafness

B

Question 60

A woman with a normal BMI of 18.5-24.9 should ideally gain ____________ pounds during pregnancy.

	A.	11-20
	B.	15-25
	C.	25-35
	D.	28-40

C

Question 61

The following are LARC methods of contraception except:

	A.	Mirena
	B.	Nexplanon
	C.	Liletta
	D.	Oral contraceptives

D

Question 62

A blood test can help confirm if a woman is beginning menopause. The test measures the level of which of these?

	A.	Follicle-stimulating hormone
	B.	Estrogen
	C.	Progesterone
	D.	Cholesterol

 A

Question 63

The current FDA approval limit for the copper IUD is:

	A.	3 years
	B.	5 years
	C.	7 years
	D.	10 years

D

Question 64

The following are risk factors for breast cancer except:

	A.	Menarche after the age of 12
	B.	Nulliparity
	C.	Menopause at age 55 years or older
	D.	First full-term pregnancy after age 30

A

Question 65

While there is no conclusive data on safe doses, caffeine intake during pregnancy should be limited to approximately ____________ mg daily.

	A.	50
	B.	100
	C.	200
	D.	400

C

Question 66

All women should be offered testing for cystic fibrosis carrier status during pregnancy. This test should be done:

	A.	Only once in a lifetime, as the status will not change
	B.	With every pregnancy that results in a live birth
	C.	With every pregnancy, including those that do not result in a live birth
	D.	Every five years

A

Question 67

Progestin-only contraceptives are generally considered safer for women who:

	A.	Have a diagnosis of Diabetes
	B.	Experience Migraines with aura
	C.	Are 15 or younger
	D.	Overweight

B Question 68

Advantages off the Lactational Amenorrhea method include all of the following except:

	A.	It is readily available
	B.	It can be used immediately postpartum
	C.	It is free
	D.	It is the most effective method of birth control

D

Question 69

When taking alendronate (Fosamax) for postmenopausal osteoporosis,

	A.	It should always be taken with food
	B.	It should be taken first think in the morning on an empty stomach
	C.	It should be taken with an 8 oz glass of water
	D.	B and C

B

Question 70

When the cervix softens in pregnancy, this is called:

	A.	Goodell’s sign
	B.	Cervical lip sign
	C.	Mucus plug sign
	D.	Vulvar sign

A

Question 71

When presenting the laboratory tests that should be performed during the pregnancy it is important to let the woman know:

	A.	She must have all the recommended tests done or it can be considered child abuse
	B.	She is required to have all tests done, except for the HIV test
	C.	She can “opt out” of any test
	D.	She should make sure that her partner signs the consent for all the tests done.

C

Question 72

Nonlatex condoms:

	A.	Fit tighter on the penis than latex condoms
	B.	Come in a variety of colors
	C.	Have an increased risk of breakage or slippage during intercourse than latex condom
	D.	Lead to a greater incidence of allergies than latex condoms

C

Question 73

In a patient with irritable bowel syndrome, a diet that eliminates ___________ is recommended.

	A.	Fat
	B.	Carbohydrates
	C.	Protein
	D.	Purine

B

Question 74

When using the TNM system for staging cancers, the letters stand for:

	A.	Tumor, nodes, melanoma
	B.	Tumor, nodes, metastasis
	C.	Tension, number, metastasis
	D.	Tumor, number, metastasis

B

Question 75

Paula also asks you about the dark line that starts at her sternal notch and goes down toward the genitalia vertically. You tell her that is called _________ and that is normal in pregnancy and may appear due to increasing levels of melanocyte-stimulating hormone.

	A.	Linea alba
	B.	Striae gravidarum
	C.	Linea nigra
	D.	Melanin

C

Question 76

The following routines can help with sleep patterns:

	A.	Taking a warm bath
	B.	Exercising
	C.	Changing into sleepwear
	D.	A and C only
	E.	All of the above

E

Question 77

When performing a semen analysis, the following is/are measured:

	A.	Semen volume
	B.	Total motility
	C.	pH
	D.	A and B
	E.	A, B, and C

E

Question 78

HPV can be spread through:

	A.	Skin-to-skin genital contact
	B.	Only through actual intercourse
	C.	The air as it is an airborne virus
	D.	Dirty needles

A

Question 79

The following are presumptive signs of pregnancy except:

	A.	Urinary frequency
	B.	Nausea and vomiting
	C.	Fatigue
	D.	Nipple lightening

D

Question 80

When using FIGO staging for cancer of the ovary, fallopian tube, and peritoneum, Stage I means:

	A.	The tumor is confined to the ovaries or fallopian tube(s)
	B.	The tumor involves one or both ovaries or fallopian tubes with pelvic extension or primary peritoneal cancer
	C.	The tumor involves one or both ovaries or fallopian tubes, or primary peritoneal cancer, with cytologically and histologically confirmed spread to the peritoneum outside the pelvis and/or metastasis to the retroperitoneal lymph nodes, and pelvis; has extended to bowel, peritoneum, or lymph nodes
	D.	Distant metastasis excluding peritoneal metastasis

A

Question 81

Men have little or no measurable decline in fertility before age:

	A.	35 to 40
	B.	45 to 50
	C.	55 to 60
	D.	65 to 70

A

Question 82

The quadrivalent HPV vaccine protects against HPV genotypes

	A.	1, 2, 3, and 4
	B.	A, X, C, F
	C.	6. 11, 16, 18
	D.	Beta, magda, gamma, and sigma

C

Question 84

The majority of vulvar malignancies are:

	A.	Squamous cell carcinomas
	B.	Basal cell carcinomas
	C.	Adenocarcinomas
	D.	Malignant melanomas

A

Question 85

DMPA should be administered:

	A.	Every 4 weeks
	B.	Every 9 weeks
	C.	Every 13 weeks
	D.	Every 24 weeks

C

Question 86

In a male, the urethra carries ___________through the penis.

	A.	Urine
	B.	Semen
	C.	Testosterone
	D.	A and B
	E.	A, B, and C

D

Question 87

Carcinoma of the vulva is most often seen in women who are:

	A.	Under the age of 30
	B.	Pre-menopausal
	C.	Post-menopausal
	D.	Actively going through menopause

C

Question 88

Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) is widely known as:

	A.	Mirena
	B.	Depo-Provera
	C.	Mini-pill
	D.	Nexplanon

B

Question 89

The following vaccine(s) is/are contraindicated in pregnancy:

	A.	MMR
	B.	Varicella
	C.	Tdap
	D.	A and B
	E.	A, B, and C

E

Question 90

Ectopic pregnancy involves a pregnancy that implants:

	A.	Outside of the uterus
	B.	In the uterus
	C.	Through in vitro fertilization
	D.	None of the above

A

Question 91

Lauren comes into your office stating she thinks she might be pregnant. She missed a period and her breasts are tender. She has also been feeling a little nauseous. On gathering her history, she tells you her LMP was 6/14/2020 and that her periods are very regular on a 28 day cycle. You do a urine HCG and it is positive. Using Nagele’s rule, calculate her estimated due date.

	A.	3/15/2021
	B.	3/19/2021
	C.	3/21/2021
	D.	3/28/2021

A

Question 92

Taylor just found out she is pregnant. She has irregular periods so she is not exactly sure how far along she is, but she thinks it is pretty early. She asks you about an ultrasound to find out how many weeks she is. You tell her that:

	A.	Early in the pregnancy is ideal because the ultrasound dating is more accurate than later in the pregnancy
	B.	She should wait a couple of months as ultrasound dating is most accurate in the second trimester of pregnancy
	C.	An ultrasound really won’t be able to tell her that information
	D.	An ultrasound is contraindicated this early in the pregnancy

A

Question 93

The following is/are types of assisted reproductive technology:

	A.	IVF
	B.	GIFT
	C.	ZIFT
	D.	A and B
	E.	A, B, and C

E

Question 94

Sometime in the last month of pregnancy, the fundal height drops slightly. This is called:

	A.	Lightening
	B.	Flexing
	C.	Pubic cradling
	D.	Hegar’s sign

A

Question 95

The first-line medication for ovulation induction in women who do not have PCOS is:

	A.	Clomiphene citrate
	B.	Letrozole
	C.	Pergonal
	D.	Follistim B Question 96 Pelvic adhesions can be caused by: A. Previous surgeries B. Infection C. Endometriosis D. All of the above D Question 97 Urine pregnancy tests are considered to be: A. Reliable B. Unreliable C. Expensive D. Invasive B Question 98 The following are preventive factors for the development of ovarian cancer: A. Pregnancy resulting in at least one full-term birth B. Factors that inhibit ovulation C. Breastfeeding D. A and C E. A, B, and C   E Question 99 When using the Bethesda system to categorize epithelial cell abnormalities on pap smear, the term used when squamous cells do not appear completely normal, but it is not possible to determine the cause of the abnormal cells is; A. ASC-H B. ASC-US C. HSIL D. LSIL A

Question 100

The Tanner scale divides sexual physical maturity into ________ stages

	A.	Three
	B.	Five
	C.	Seven
	D.	Nine